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#170 – 14th Cyber Security and Cyber Crime Awareness Session, at Ambalika Institute of Professional Studies.
#169 – 13th Cyber Security and Cyber Crime Awareness Session, at KVPF Kerala
#168 – 12th Cyber Security and Cyber Crime Awareness Session, at SKIET Kurukshetra
#167 – 11th Cyber Security and Cyber Crime Awareness Session at PaGE, Ranchi and Hyderabad
#121 World Compliment Day at Sahara Old Age Home
#120 New Year Eve celebrations at Jivodaya and Sai Sahara
#119 Educational Counselling at Hamara Kartyav
#118 Ujjwal – a Day with Chotus – Noida Sector 62
#117 Helping Brainz Green VEINS at GBM, Dwarka
#116 2019 Mother’s Day at Jeevodaya Ashralayaa
#115 CrafTShaala 2019 – Kizhadoor, Thrissur (An empowerment session for the flood effected women)
#114 VanitaJyoti Kochi 2019, A workshop on Women Entrepreneurship and Empowerment.
#113 New Year Celebrations with the grandmas and grandpas of Sai Sahara.
#112 Phase#2 Clothes Donations Drive at West and Central Delhi, on New Year Eve.
#111 Phase#1 Clothes Donations Drive at West and Central Delhi, on Christmas Eve.
#110 Workshop on ‘being a leader’ at Government School in Badshahpur
109# Creative-Crafts Making workshop by Mini Sajan at Annamanada.
#108 VanitaJyoti – Annamanada

3rd TPRM Master Class by International TPRM Alliance

June 27, 2026

TPRM Master Class Series by ITA

3rd TPRM Master Class

Please enter your full name, email address and location for certificate/score-generations! You will receive a certificate only if you score above 70%.

1 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

1. A security engineer detects that a library declared in the SBOM at build time is not present when observing runtime behavior. Which RBOM capability directly addresses this scenario?

A. VEX documents paired with SBOMs reduce triage noise and help identify missing runtime libraries

B. Cryptographic signing of SBOMs with SLSA attestations detects discrepancies post-deployment

C. Continuous CVE alerting integrated with NVD identifies missing components through known vulnerability feeds

D. SBOM to RBOM drift detection surfaces unauthorized or unexpected components and phantom dependencies visible at runtime but absent from manifests

2 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

2. why do zombie dependencies remain in production undetected?

A. Security scanners are not configured to scan transitive dependencies

B. They are deliberately excluded from SBOMs by developers

C. They still work and trigger no alerts, while traditional scanners only flag known CVEs not lack of maintenance

D. They are hidden inside container base images that are never scanned

3 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

3. Which US legislation established SBOM as a national security priority in 2021?

A. FDA Cybersecurity Guidance

B. EU Cyber Resilience Act

C. NIST SP 800-218

D. US Executive Order 14028

4 / 28

Category: 18th RT-International TPRM Alliance

Which topics would you like to see covered in future roundtables or masterclasses?
e.g.,

4. Third-Party Cyber Risk & Continuous Monitoring
AI Risk in Vendor Ecosystems
Cloud & SaaS Risk Management
Regulatory Compliance (e.g., outsourcing, data protection)
Fourth-Party / Concentration Risk
Incident & Breach Management involving vendors
Other (please specify): __________

5 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

5. A threat actor injects malicious code into a trusted npm package, which is then published through the normal registry. A downstream enterprise application that pins to a version range automatically picks up the compromise. Which two phases of the supply chain attack anatomy from the presentation are directly demonstrated here?

A. Execute in Target and Exfiltrate or Persist, because the malicious code runs inside the enterprise environment and subsequently exfiltrates credentials

B. Distribute via Trust and Execute in Target, because the registry acts as a distribution channel and the malicious payload activates via dependency resolution in CI/CD

C. Compromise Upstream and Distribute via Trust, because the attacker injected code into a trusted package and propagated it through legitimate update channels and package registries

D. Compromise Upstream and Execute in Target, because the injection happened at the source repository level and executed directly when the application resolved the dependency

6 / 28

Category: 18th RT-International TPRM Alliance

How would you rate the overall experience of the event?

6. Highly insightful and engaging
Informative and valuable
Average / satisfactory
Lengthy but useful
Too long and less engaging
Not relevant / could be improved

7 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

7. An organization wants to reduce triage time when a new critical CVE is disclosed. How does the combination of SBOM and RBOM achieve this according to the presentation?

A. SBOM identifies which applications declared the vulnerable library while RBOM confirms which production services are actively loading it right now, together cutting triage from hours to minutes

B. Both SBOM and RBOM together generate VEX documents automatically to communicate exploitability context to downstream consumers

C. SBOM triggers automated CI/CD rollbacks when a CVE is matched while RBOM monitors traffic for exploit attempts in real time

D. RBOM automates patch deployment to affected services while SBOM documents the remediation for compliance reporting

8 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

8. What was the CVE identifier associated with the XZ Utils backdoor incident in March 2024?

A. CVE-2024-1234

B. CVE-2024-9876

C. CVE-2024-3094

D. CVE-2023-4455

9 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

9. During the XZ Utils backdoor attack, how was the threat ultimately discovered?

A. The attacker's GitHub account was flagged by GitHub's security team during a routine audit

B. A developer noticed an anomalous 500ms latency spike that was traced back to the backdoored library

C. CISA issued a vulnerability advisory after detecting anomalous SSH traffic patterns across affected servers

D. An automated SBOM scanner flagged an unexpected dependency added to the compression library

10 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

10. How does the 'Optimize 12+ months' phase of the Supply Chain Security Roadmap differ from the 'Mature 6-12 months' phase?

A. The Mature phase focuses on vendor SBOMs while the Optimize phase focuses on internal SBOMs

B. The Mature phase handles transitive dependency mapping while the Optimize phase handles direct dependency governance only

C. The Optimize phase introduces manual SBOM review processes to complement the automated pipeline built in the Mature phase

D. The Mature phase enforces policy as code and detects zombie dependencies while the Optimize phase adds RBOM deployment, SLSA provenance verification, SBOM-to-RBOM drift analysis, predictive risk analytics, and open source contribution

11 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

11. What is the key difference between static SBOM and Runtime Bill of Materials (RBOM)?

A. SBOM is generated by security teams while RBOM is generated by developers

B. SBOM captures declared dependencies at build time while RBOM observes components actually executing in production

C. SBOM uses CycloneDX format while RBOM uses SPDX format

D. SBOM covers open-source components while RBOM covers commercial software

12 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

12. What is the primary characteristic that makes a dependency a 'zombie dependency'?

A. It has more than 10 known CVEs

B. It is written in an old programming language

C. It uses deprecated APIs

D. It is an unmaintained open-source package still running in production

13 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

13. Which open-source tools are mentioned for creating SBOMs during builds?

A. Docker, Kubernetes, Helm

B. Jenkins, GitLab, CircleCI

C. Syft, Trivy, Grype

D. Snyk, Veracode, Checkmarx

14 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

14. According to the NTIA Minimum Elements, which of the following is a required field in an SBOM?

A. License cost and vendor contact information

B. Source code repository URL and CI/CD pipeline name

C. Deployment environment and runtime configuration

D. Unique identifier (CPE or PURL) and dependency relationships

15 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

15. Which attestation frameworks are mentioned for verifying SBOM provenance?

A. SLSA and Sigstore

B. SOC 2 Type II and PCI DSS

C. ISO 27001 and FedRAMP

D. NIST CSF and CIS Controls

16 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

16. What does SBOM stand for?

A. Software Bill of Materials

B. System Baseline Operations Monitor

C. Secure Binary Output Module

D. Software Build Operations Management

17 / 28

Category: 18th RT-International TPRM Alliance

17. Please share your feedback on the event

What did you find most valuable?
What could be improved?
Any suggestions for future sessions?

18 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

18. When did the EU Cyber Resilience Act enter into force?

A. June 2024

B. March 2025

C. December 2024

D. January 2023

19 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

19. An enterprise security team is evaluating whether to standardize on CycloneDX or SPDX for their SBOM format. What guidance does the presentation provide, and why is format standardization critical?

A. CycloneDX should be chosen for build-time SBOMs while SPDX is used for runtime observation because each format is optimized for its respective phase

B. CycloneDX is recommended for open-source projects while SPDX is mandatory for regulated industries; mixed formats are acceptable as long as tooling can convert between them

C. Choose either CycloneDX or SPDX and commit organizationally for consistent integration, avoiding mixed-format environments that slow incident response

D. The presentation recommends SPDX because it aligns with NTIA minimum elements and is the only format accepted by the FDA for medical device submissions

20 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

20. What root cause made the XZ Utils attack pattern particularly dangerous and scalable according to the presentation?

A. The attacker compromised the upstream GitHub Actions pipeline and poisoned the release artifacts across all Linux distributions simultaneously

B. XZ Utils lacked any form of code review, allowing malicious code to be merged without oversight

C. The attacker exploited a zero-day in the SSH protocol that bypassed all authentication mechanisms

D. A sole maintainer with long-term burnout created a bus factor of one, and attackers target low-maintainer packages using a repeatable and scalable pattern

21 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

21. What does RBOM stand for?

A. Remote Bill of Materials

B. Runtime Binary Operations Monitor

C. Repository-Based Object Mapping

D. Runtime Bill of Materials

22 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

22. In the context of vulnerability correlation in the SBOM maturity pipeline, which scoring systems are applied?

A. ISO 27001 and SOC 2 risk ratings

B. OWASP Top 10 severity levels and PCI DSS tiers

C. NVD criticality bands and vendor patch priority scores

D. CVSS and EPSS scoring, integrated with VEX and continuous alerting

23 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

23. According to the presentation, what is the global cost of supply chain attacks in 2025?

A. $20 billion

B. $100 billion

C. $60 billion

D. $40 billion

24 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

24. According to the Supply Chain Security Roadmap, what activities are included in the 'Foundation' phase (0–3 months)?

A. Deploy RBOM and verify provenance with SLSA

B. Enforce policy as code and detect zombie dependencies

C. Correlate SBOMs with CVE/NVD and adopt VEX

D. Standardize SBOM format, automate SBOM generation, and baseline component inventory

25 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

25. What does DORA require specifically for the financial sector?

A. Mandatory disclosure of all open-source components to regulators

B. ICT third-party risk management for the financial sector from January 2025

C. Annual penetration testing of all software components

D. Real-time SBOM sharing with central banking authorities

26 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

26. According to the 'SBOMs as Mandatory Evidence' , which regulatory frameworks specifically drive the requirement to embed signed, versioned SBOMs?

A. ISO 27001, NIST CSF, and FedRAMP

B. EU CRA, DORA, and NIS2

C. GDPR, ePrivacy Directive, and UK Cyber Essentials

D. PCI DSS, HIPAA, and SOC 2 Type II

27 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

27. According to the SBOM Best Practices slide, what is the purpose of pairing SBOMs with VEX documents?

A. To automate dependency updates when a VEX document marks a CVE as fixed upstream

B. To cryptographically sign the SBOM and bind it to a specific build artifact for provenance verification

C. To synchronize SBOM data across multiple registry formats such as CycloneDX and SPDX simultaneously

D. To state exploitability context and reduce triage load by distinguishing exploitable from non-exploitable vulnerabilities

28 / 28

Category: 3rd-TPRMMasterclass

28. What is the first stage in the anatomy of a supply chain attack?

A. Exfiltrate or Persist

B. Compromise Upstream

C. Distribute via Trust

D. Execute in Target

Your score is

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2nd TPRM Master Class by International TPRM Alliance

May 23, 2026

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1st TPRM Master Class by International TPRM Alliance

May 9, 2026

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International TPRM Alliance – 17th TPRM Roundtable 2026 – Post Summit Quiz

April 25, 2026

You have 20 mins to complete this QUIZ! Wish you all the best!

Time is UP!

RTInternationalTPRMAlliance

17th TPRM Roundtable 2026

Please enter your full name, email address and location for certificate/score-generations! You will receive a certificate only if you score above 70%.

1 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

1. Full compliance but failure to detect geopolitical cyber threats indicates:

A. Inadequate vendor oversight

B. Weak governance structures 

C. Limitation of compliance without resilience 

D. Ineffective compliance frameworks 

Source: WEF – Cyber Resilience

2 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

2. Why do data localization laws elevate geopolitical risk?

A. Greater dependency on local infrastructure providers 

B. Constraints on cross-border data transfer and operations 

C. Increased regulatory oversight across jurisdictions 

D. Fragmentation of global data management strategies

Source: World Bank – Data Localization

3 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

3. What is the evolving role of boards in geopolitical risk management?

A. Monitoring operational risk metrics

B. Oversight of compliance and regulatory adherence 

C. Strategic oversight of systemic and geopolitical risks 

D. Identification of critical vendor dependencies 

Source: Harvard Law – Board Risk Oversight

4 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

4. Which scenario best reflects cyber being used as a geopolitical instrument?

A. Large-scale phishing campaigns targeting financial institutions 

B. Coordinated ransomware attacks on global corporations 

C. State-sponsored disruption of another nation’s critical infrastructure 

D. Exploitation of zero-day vulnerabilities by cybercriminal groups

Source: NATO CCDCOE

5 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

5. What is the most effective resilience approach against geopolitical shocks?

A. Periodic risk assessments with updated controls 

B. Real-time intelligence integrated with dependency mapping 

C. Increased redundancy across critical operations

D. Strengthened vendor due diligence processes 

Source: World Economic Forum – Resilience

6 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

6. Which scenario best illustrates the innovation vs sovereignty trade-off?

A. Choosing local vendors with limited capabilities to ensure compliance 

B. Balancing access to cutting-edge technology with regulatory obligations 

C. Delaying cloud adoption due to unclear policies

D. Selecting advanced global cloud providers despite regulatory uncertainty 

Source: McKinsey – Digital Sovereignty

7 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

7. How are “critical vendors” being redefined in geopolitical contexts?

A. Based on geographic location of operations

B. Based on financial and contractual importance 

C. Based on operational dependency and impact 

D. Based on exposure to geopolitical and systemic risks 

Source: KPMG – TPRM Outlook

8 / 28

Category: 18th RT-International TPRM Alliance

8. Please share your feedback on the event

What did you find most valuable?
What could be improved?
Any suggestions for future sessions?

9 / 28

Category: 18th RT-International TPRM Alliance

How would you rate the overall experience of the event?

9. Highly insightful and engaging
Informative and valuable
Average / satisfactory
Lengthy but useful
Too long and less engaging
Not relevant / could be improved

10 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

10. What is the key governance gap in TPRM today?

A. Lack of clarity in vendor classification 

B. Insufficient regulatory guidance 

C. Misalignment between policy and execution 

D. Limited adoption of risk tools

Source: PwC – Risk Survey

11 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

11. Why is continuous monitoring critical in geopolitical environments?

A. Supports real-time response to geopolitical developments 

B. Enables proactive identification of emerging risks 

C. Strengthens compliance with regulatory requirements

D. Enhances visibility into third-party activities 

Source: Gartner – Continuous Monitoring

12 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

12. What is the core geopolitical concern related to cloud adoption?

A. Cost optimization across cloud providers

B. Vendor reliability and uptime guarantees 

C. Data privacy and protection requirements 

D. Jurisdictional control over data and infrastructure 

Source: European Commission – Digital Sovereignty

13 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

13. Sanctions on a vendor’s operating country primarily lead to:

A. Immediate legal and operational disruption 

B. Reputational risk exposure 

C. Contractual renegotiation challenges

D. Increased compliance obligations 

Source: OFAC Framework

14 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

14. What primarily drives systemic vendor dependency risk in a geopolitical disruption?

A. Over-reliance on strategically critical suppliers

B. Concentration of vendors within a specific geography 

C. Limited diversification across vendor portfolios 

D. Shared reliance on common infrastructure across vendors 

Source: BIS – Operational Resilience

(From a geopolitical risk standpoint only)

15 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

15. Why do nth-party risks significantly increase geopolitical exposure?

A. Difficulty in enforcing contractual obligations downstream

B. Lack of visibility into extended supply chain dependencies 

C. Increased operational complexity in vendor management 

D. Hidden exposure to high-risk or sanctioned jurisdictions 

Nth-party risks amplify geopolitical exposure because organizations often don’t know where their vendors’ vendors operate. This creates blind spots where activities may be tied to sanctioned, unstable, or high-risk regions without direct visibility or control. The other options are valid challenges of nth-party risk, but they are more operational and management-related. This option directly ties to geopolitical exposure, which is the core of the question.

Source: Deloitte – Extended Enterprise Risk

16 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

16. What is the most underestimated geopolitical risk in supply chains?

A. Vendor financial instability

B. Over-reliance on key vendors 

C. Lack of regulatory compliance 

D. Hidden interdependencies across ecosystems 

Source: Deloitte – Risk Survey

17 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

17. Why is cyber risk increasingly classified as a geopolitical issue?

A. Increased dependency on IT infrastructure

B. Growth in digital transformation initiatives across industries

C. Increase in cybercrime incidents globally 

D. Rise of nation-state-backed cyber operations targeting strategic assets 

Source: World Economic Forum – Global Cybersecurity Outlook 2024

18 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

18. What is the primary impact of regulatory fragmentation across regions?

A. Difficulty in standardizing global risk frameworks 

B. Operational complexity in managing multi-jurisdictional requirements 

C. Increased compliance burden due to varying standards 

D. Increased legal uncertainty across jurisdictions

Source: EY – Global Regulatory Outlook

19 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

19. What distinguishes resilience from compliance in a geopolitical context?

A. Ability to respond dynamically to disruptions vs static controls 

B. Alignment with policies vs execution capabilities

C. Emphasis on audits vs real-time monitoring 

D. Focus on regulatory adherence vs operational continuity 

Source: UK PRA – Operational Resilience

20 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

20. What is a key trade-off in geopolitical risk management?

A. Cost optimization vs risk mitigation

B. Innovation vs regulatory compliance 

C. Efficiency vs operational resilience 

D. Globalization vs localization strategies 

Source: Accenture – Tech Vision

21 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

21. Multiple SaaS vendors hosted in the same region create what risk?

A. Vendor concentration risk 

B. Infrastructure dependency risk 

C. Operational concentration risk

D. Geographic concentration risk 

Geographic concentration risk

When multiple SaaS vendors are hosted in the same region, a single geopolitical event, regulatory action, or regional outage can impact all of them simultaneously. This creates a shared point of failure tied to location, which is the essence of geographic concentration risk.

The other options are related but less precise:

Vendor concentration risk = too much reliance on a single vendor
Infrastructure dependency risk = reliance on specific underlying tech (e.g., one cloud provider)
Operational concentration risk = concentration in processes or teams

Source: FSB – Cloud Dependencies

Geographic concentration risk

The other options are related but less precise:

Vendor concentration risk = too much reliance on a single vendor
Infrastructure dependency risk = reliance on specific underlying tech (e.g., one cloud provider)
Operational concentration risk = concentration in processes or teams

Source: FSB – Cloud Dependencies

22 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

22. What is the most immediate impact of sanctions on third-party relationships?

A. Increased compliance requirements for vendors 

B. Restriction or termination of business relationships 

C. Enhanced due diligence processes 

D. Reassessment of vendor contracts

Source: OFAC Guidelines

23 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

23. How do geopolitical tensions reshape enterprise cybersecurity strategies most directly?

A. Shift from preventive controls to resilience-focused frameworks

B. Increased investment in traditional perimeter security 

C. Transition toward intelligence-led and adaptive defense mechanisms

D. Reduction in reliance on external vendors

Source: ENISA Threat Landscape 2023

24 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

24. Which is the most direct geopolitical risk affecting global supply chains?

A. Increasing operational costs across vendors 

B. Vendor performance inconsistencies

C. Trade restrictions, sanctions, and export controls 

D. Regulatory compliance requirements across regions 

Source: OECD – Global Value Chains

25 / 28

Category: 18th RT-International TPRM Alliance

Which topics would you like to see covered in future roundtables or masterclasses?
e.g.,

25. Third-Party Cyber Risk & Continuous Monitoring
AI Risk in Vendor Ecosystems
Cloud & SaaS Risk Management
Regulatory Compliance (e.g., outsourcing, data protection)
Fourth-Party / Concentration Risk
Incident & Breach Management involving vendors
Other (please specify): __________

26 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

26. What is the most strategic immediate action for a CISO?

A. Map dependencies with geopolitical exposure 

B. Enhance vendor due diligence processes 

C. Reassess critical vendor classifications 

D. Strengthen incident response frameworks

Map dependencies with geopolitical exposure

This is the most strategic immediate action because you can’t manage or mitigate what you don’t see. Mapping dependencies—especially across third- and nth-parties—gives visibility into where geopolitical risks actually exist, which then informs all other actions (reclassification, due diligence, incident response).

The other options are important, but they are downstream activities. Without a clear view of exposure, those efforts may be misaligned or incomplete.

Source: McKinsey – Cyber Risk

Map dependencies with geopolitical exposure

The other options are important, but they are downstream activities. Without a clear view of exposure, those efforts may be misaligned or incomplete.

Source: McKinsey – Cyber Risk

27 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

27. What defines cloud concentration risk in a geopolitical context?

A. Dependence on providers headquartered in specific geopolitical regions 

B. Over-reliance on a small number of cloud providers 

C. Centralization of workloads within specific providers

D. Limited portability across cloud environments 

Source: FSB – Cloud Risk

28 / 28

Category: 25th April 2026 session quiz

28. Why might vendor diversification fail during geopolitical disruption?

A. Vendors share underlying infrastructure dependencies 

B. Overlap in service delivery models

C. Vendors operate within similar geopolitical regions 

D. Lack of independent operational capabilities 

Source: BIS – Operational Risk

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